Got stuck on final part of injectivity proof, finished all the rest
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@@ -156,7 +156,7 @@ See the assignment PDF for the full assignment specification and theorem.
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$\frac{2^1 * 3^1}{5^1} = \frac{6}{5}$.
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\item In order to prove that $f$ is a bijection, we have to prove that $f$ is injective and surjective.
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\begin{description}
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\item[Surjectivity:] We want to show that $f$ is 1-1,
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\item[Injectivity:] We want to show that $f$ is 1-1,
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i.e. $f(x_1)=f(x_2) \implies x_1 = x_2$.
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So, let's assume that for any $x_1, x_2 \in \{ q > 0 : q \in \Q \}$, $f(x_1) = f(x_2)$.
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@@ -180,7 +180,7 @@ See the assignment PDF for the full assignment specification and theorem.
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\end{align}
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Because we know that each fraction constitutes a unique prime factorization, we also know that $x_1$ and
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$x_2$ are uniquely derived. This is why the implications in the equation above holds.
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$x_2$ are uniquely derived. This is why the implications in the equation above hold.
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Because both $x_1$ and $x_2 > 0$, $x_1 = x_2$.
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Now for the case where $x \in \Q\backslash\N$.
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@@ -204,8 +204,34 @@ See the assignment PDF for the full assignment specification and theorem.
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\frac{x_1*x_1}{p_1***p_N*q_1***q_M} &= \frac{x_2*x_2}{v_1***v_n*w_1***w_m}
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\end{align}
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\item[Injectivity:] We want to show that $f$ is onto,
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i.e. $f(\{ q > 0 : q \in \Q \}) = \N$.
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I'm kinda stuck at this point. I see that this is definitely injective, since the way the exponents
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are defined, you will always know which prime factors belong to the numerator or to the denominator.
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But I fail to prove this using the direct definition of $f$ like we could do for the natural numbers.
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This is because the products of the denominators in the last equation are not unique.
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So maybe I simplified them too much and shouldn't try and write them in terms of $x_1$ and $x_2$ like
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we did earlier, and try and focus more on just the exponents, but I feel it becomes really hard
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to show that $x_1 = x_2$ that way.
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\item[Surjectivity:] We want to show that $f$ is onto, i.e. $f(\{ q > 0 : q \in \Q \}) = \N$.
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In order to prove this, we will take an arbitrary $y \in \N$, and show that $\exists x : f(x)=y$.
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We know from the \textbf{Theorem} that $y$ can be written as a product of unique prime factors,
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$p_1^{r_1}***p_N^{r_N}$. From the definition of $f$ we know that if the exponents of the prime factors
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$r$ are even, they belong to the numerator of $x$ and if the exponents are
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odd, they belong to the denominator of $x$. If there are no prime factors with odd exponents,
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$x$ will be a natural number. If $y=1$, $x=1$.
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We will now only consider the case that $y$ is a prime factorization with factors with odd exponents
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\footnote{The case for a prime factorization with solely even exponents can be backtracked
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in a similar fashion, just without the case for odd exponents and making $x$ a fraction.}.
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Then, we can find $x$ in the following way: we multiply each prime factor $p_i^{2r_i-1}$ with $p_i$
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and take the square root. We know that the square root of $p_i^{2r_i}$ is defined, since the exponent
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is multiplied by a factor 2, which the root negates. This will yield a prime factorization that we will
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put in the denominator of a fraction. We do the same for the prime factors with even exponent, but
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without multiplying with $p_i$. The prime factors we gain like that we put as a product in the
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numerator of the fraction. So, we gain a fraction with both the numerator and the denominator
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consisting of products of prime numbers, which are natural numbers, and so the fraction is positive
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and in fact a fraction. \qed
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\end{description}
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\end{enumerate}
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